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Question:
Miller (1962) explains that “abusive parents report more conflict in their families of origin (e.g., their own childhood abuse) than do non-abuse parents, suggesting that intergenerational transmission may occur in these families.” Do you believe and support this theory which hypothesizes that there is a relationship between being abused as a child and being abusive to one’s own children? Why or why not? Please explain
Question:
Miller (1962) explains that “abusive parents report more conflict in their families of origin (e.g., their own childhood abuse) than do non-abuse parents, suggesting that intergenerational transmission may occur in these families.” Do you believe and support this theory which hypothesizes that there is a relationship between being abused as a child and being abusive to one’s own children? Why or why not? Please explain
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